Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:41
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do you think Islam oppresses women when Christianity clearly does it more?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.